Whilst I agree in the main with what is being suggested, let's look at it in
more simplistic terms (and terms probably better understood by your average
Daily Mirror reader).
Johnny has a bag of 10 sweets. His mother says he must share. He gives Emily
4 sweets and keeps six. He has shared. The sharing is one way. He is then
told to be fair so gives Emily a further sweet.
My own view would be that it is disclosure if it is a release of data for a
single use (or maybe a single issue of data). If it is data provided one way
on a regular or semi regular basis, then that is data sharing. I do not
believe that sharing implies a two way trade - Maybe that would be bartering
information?!
Maybe the legal bods amongst us can point us to a legal definition of
"disclosure" that will allow us to separate that from sharing. I suspect
that they can co-exist.
A data sharing protocol one way is perfectly valid as it should highlight
what is required of each party. What I object to is a protocol that is
lengthy. A protocol should be able to written in a couple of sides of A4 in
my opinion - although I must admit to being guilty of verbosity too.
Simon Howarth.
-----Original Message-----
From: This list is for those interested in Data Protection issues
[mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Gibson, Martin (ICT)
Sent: 24 October 2011 12:35
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: [data-protection] Disclosure of personal data isn't data
sharing
Hi Paul,
I would agree entirely. It confuses the issue. I have seen some alleged data
sharing protocols which are all one way i.e. disclosure by one party only.
Data sharing to me indicates a two way (at least) process.
Martin
Martin Gibson
Data Protection Officer
Legal and Democratic Services
Buckinghamshire County Council
01296 382907
www.buckscc.gov.uk
-----Original Message-----
From: This list is for those interested in Data Protection issues
[mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Paul Ticher
Sent: Monday 24 October 2011 12:30
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: [data-protection] Disclosure of personal data isn't data sharing
Is it just me, or do others think that the Information Commissioner
shouldn't describe the one-off disclosure of data, e.g. under s.29, as data
sharing? I find that it confuses the issue, because the basis for sharing
and the basis for disclosure are usually quite different, and the processes
of authorising the disclosure or the sharing are also usually different: a
protocol for sharing, and authorisation procedure for disclosure.
[Prompted by Chris's reference below, but I've been worrying about this for
some time.]
Paul Ticher
0116 273 8191
www.paulticher.com
22 Stoughton Drive North, Leicester LE5 5UB
----- Original Message -----
From: "chris pounder" <[log in to unmask]>
To: <[log in to unmask]>
Sent: Wednesday, October 19, 2011 1:28 PM
Subject: Re: Disclosure of personal data in relation to possible credit card
fraud
> The test is that you have to be satisfied that failure to disclose would
> prejudice prevention/detection of crime.
>
>
>
> If they are saying that "prejudice is possible", I am not sure whether
> that
> is enough. You might have to get them to "firm up" - so to speak.
>
>
>
> You could say that if they contact the police, you would disclose to the
> police.
>
>
>
> Also, see the ICO's data sharing code of practice. This is relevant if you
> decide to disclose.
>
>
>
> You are not obliged to disclose.
>
>
>
> I think these are the issues.
>
>
>
> C
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