Sorry if this posting appears twice, something went funny with my email!
If company A forms a partnetship with company B it may be necessary for
company A to pass personal data to company B so that the service can be
provided to the customer. If the data is passed purely to satisfy the needs
of the customer and not for marketing purposes is this still classed as
passing to a third party? Does the data subject need to have given
permission?
Thanks,
Stewart.
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