>As far as I can see it is almost certainly a breach of the
Telecommunications (Lawful >Business Practice) (Interception of
Communications) Regulations 2000 (SI 2000 NO. 2699) >to record a telephone
call for training purposes without the consent of both parties.
Isn't it the case that this message achieves that consent? The employee has
consented because it's part of their job. The customer has the option to
hang up or "consent" and carry on with the call. However, depending on how
much of an alternative the customer has to dealing with that organisation,
that might not really be an option at all.
Regards,
Graham
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