Hi Ian,
I usually use the example of civil action taken against John Lewis as evidence of how this is applies. There are a few sources for this, including a blog by Tim (http://2040infolawblog.com/2014/06/06/ticked-off/) and another by Jon Baines (http://informationrightsandwrongs.com/2014/06/06/piles-of-cash-for-claiming-against-spammers-im-not-so-sure/) which explain it well.
Not so much "official guidance", but good for explaining it in practice.
Hope this helps.
Best wishes,
Michelle Peel
Information Manager
Transport for Greater Manchester
2 Piccadilly Place, Manchester M1 3BG
Direct line 0161 244 1123, Extension 701123
www.tfgm.com
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-----Original Message-----
From: This list is for those interested in Data Protection issues [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Ian Griffiths
Sent: 05 November 2015 23:39
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: [data-protection] Absence of refusal and the presence of consent
Looking for some official guidance on the absence of refusal not equating to the presence of consent.
I'm clear myself but I need something official to substantiate the position.
Thanks
Ian
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