Lawrence
I think the answer is that we will probably have to wait and see.
If the tort of misuse is now, it seems, part of the common law, it is not directly linked to DPA but my guess would be that DPA will be one of the yardsticks (along with Human Rights, confidentiality and possibly others) by which it is decided whether use is misuse. I would be reasonably confident in sticking my neck out and saying that if the use breaches the principles it is misuse - certainly so if it is P1 unlawful. Less confident in asserting that if it does not (e.g. because processor can come within s36) it is necessarily not misuse. In your example, as discussed in previous threads, the issue could still be is s36 really engaged. Try it and see!
Another example where the link may be broken is misuse of personal information contained in paper files by a non-public authority whcih are technically outside the DPA definition of data
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