Phil
Time for a classic DP answer!!! It depends!
Assuming say 3/4 of the squad say he's too soft but the other 1/4 offer
no comment or say the opposite then the consultant is safe to make that
claim.
However if the requestor was one of the no comment/opposite brigade then
in my view it wouldn't be his PD - you can't directly attribute the
comment to him. If the requestor was in the 'too soft' camp however
then the answer would be yes as the comment is attributable.
All that said there may be other facets of the report that are the PD of
Mr 'No Comment/Opposite' as they reflect his views or can be directly
attributable..
This is without the semantics of the FA being in possession of
sufficient information etc etc
Don't you just love the clarity DP throws up!
As for Renzo's speculation that it's Rooney my money is on Cashley ;0)
Lee Gardiner
Corporate Records Manager
www.wirral.nhs.uk
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-----Original Message-----
From: This list is for those interested in Data Protection issues
[mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Phil Bradshaw
Sent: 27 May 2010 09:23
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: [data-protection] Hypothetical question
A consultant prepares a report for the FA after interviewing all England
team members. The report contains the statement "In my view the team
believes Mr Capello is too soft on poor performance" . Does this
statement constitute personal data relating to an individual team member
who makes an SAR to the FA ?
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