In a message dated 05/02/04 11:06:02 GMT Standard Time,
[log in to unmask] writes :
[snip]
> The employee has consented because it's part of their job.
--------
Now there's an interesting definition of "consent" - there was I thinking it
meant a freely given indication of agreement.
I suppose if you take it back to the recruitment phase, the person has
consented because they could have gone to work for another company instead.
Assuming they knew all about the terms and conditions before accepting the job, maybe
the consent was also "informed".
Seriously, though, the use of the recorded call for training the individual
concerned is not as big a problem as using it to train other staff. Even if it
is not personal data about the customer it is almost certainly personal data
about the employee who took the call.
Or is it? I might ask the FSA how they view the matter. Does anyone know
what their response times are?
Ian B
Ian Buckland
Managing Director
Keep IT Legal Ltd
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