Morning All!!
Putting the naughty bank managers to bed so to speak! I have an interesting
hypothetical question based on loose facts. Mrs A is selling her house part
of the garden is owned by Rail track, she has a contract with them to lease
the land for a sum repayable every year. When placing the house on the
market Mrs A's solicitors wrote to Rail track asking for a forecast of costs
for new tenants of the land, also stipulating that such contract details
should only be released to themselves, they provided written consent from
Mrs A for Rail track to provide the details.
Time went by and no response, MR B puts in an offer on the house, a land
registry search reveals the existence of the tenancy for part of the garden.
Mr B telephones Rail track directly asking for the details of the contract
with Mrs A (costs etc), Rail track supply the personal details of Mrs A's
payment plan to Mr B, who promptly pulls out of the sale! Mrs A asks why
and is told the tenancy fee she pays is too high for Mr B, and infact the
amount disclosed to Mr B is four times that actually paid!!
1. Does the information given to Mr B constitute personal data (I think so)
2. If so is Mrs A entitled to compensation!
3. Has Rail track failed to meet the fourth principle of accuracy?
Any suggestions?
Paul Couldrey
Data Protection Officer
Wolverhampton City Council
p.s. I'm not selling my house I'm happy where I am, so I'm not Mrs A!!!!
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