In a message dated 02/15/2000 6:25:14 AM Eastern Standard Time,
[log in to unmask] writes:
<< That
is a different thing from translating from the Septuagint. >>
Okay, I think I see the problem. I'm sorry if I didn't state it clearly.
What I meant was that he either had the Greek near him for consultation
(consultation being the key word here) or had it in memory. If I remember
correctly, before Jerome's age, and actually sometime thereafter, canonized
(I use the term somewhat loosely) scripture was in Greek. Being raised in
that tradition, as Jerome certainly was, he had to have gone out of his way
to avoid the Greek. That he learned Hebrew has been clearly demonstrated (I
never doubted that for a minute) and certainly constitutes a tremendous
effort to move around the "establishment." But did he completely clear that
hurdle? Using words like paradise, makes me think that he did not. Of
course there may be alternatives, something I was trying to get across, such
as certain Greek words slipping into common Latin usage (as this is supposed
to be the vulgar Latin, "common" needs to be emphasized), or the need to use
technical terms.
Well I hope this clears matters up a little.
mark
PS, Sorry if I sounded a bit cranky earlier.
%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%
|