In a message dated 02/13/2000 6:26:53 AM Eastern Standard Time,
[log in to unmask] writes:
<< As I point out in another note, it was Jerome's custom to translate
Hebrew names. He understood - whether rightly or wrongly, I am not
competent to say, the Krafty Doctor will tell us - "Eden" to mean
"Locus Voluptatis" - and so he rendered it.
>>
Well I certainly agree that Doc Bob explained the differences but I am still
puzzled as to why Jerome translated the way he did. Did he use Greek terms
because they were common lingo? technical terms with no Latin equivalent?
just lazy or in a hurry with the Septuagint by his side for cribbing? trying
to comment without adding commentary? explanations without explanatory notes?
This whole Jerome business is becoming ever more fascinating.
mark
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