>Dear All, Here is another theatre query for you. In 1241 Innocent II
forbade
>the performance of religious plays in the churches. Religious drama moved
>outside and became secularized, played in the vernacular language by
ordinary
>people, especially in England where the elaborate craft cycles evolved.
>>From this it would seem that the Pope's only objection was to the plays
being
>performed in the churches, not to the plays, themselves. Is there any
>documentation on this event which might shed light on Innocent's motives?
>What, actually, was the problem? Thanks.
>C. Thomas Ault
>Indiana University of Pennsylvania
>Indiana, Pa. 15705
>USA
For a lot of information and sources generally regarding the history of
objections to secular performers in churches, you could consult (among
others):
FARAL, Edmond, "Les jongleurs en France au Moyen Age" (Paris, 1910).
and more recently:
SUCHOMSKI, J., "Delectatio und Utilitas. Ein Beitrag zum Verständnis
mittelalterlicher komischer Literatur" (Bern and Munich, 1975). (Bibl.
germanica 18).
These works contain many references which cover the history of opposition to
actors, and particularly their presence in religious establishments; many of
the works on "jongleurs", or "historia vs. fabula" will cover the same
ground. If you want more references, please get in touch!
Best wishes,
DARON
Daron Burrows, Trinity College, Oxford University.
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