> Has anyone out there an idea of when the phrase "descendit ad inferos
> (inferna) " became normative for the western church Creed after the
> earlier councils. Was it contested in the later medieval period? My
> reason is that the phrase is often paired with St. Thomas in
> associations of apostles and the Creed and that suggests to me that
> there might have been some "doubting" that had to be proven..Thanks
> much
I don't know if anyone did contest the phrase, but it is well grounded
in scripture. 1 Peter 3:18f has, "In the body he was put to death, in
the spirit he was raised to life, and, in the spirit, he went to preach
to the spirits in prison . . .
". . . And because he is their judge too, the dead had to be told the
Good news as well . . ." (1 Peter 4:6)
To deny the clause would have been to deny the authority of St Peter's
letter. Again, I don't know if in fact anyone did so. Stranger things
have happened.
Bill.
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