On Wed, 7 Aug 1996, Dennis D. Martin wrote:
> can refer equally to men and woman and is so used. It has to do
> precisely with whether or not one has experienced genital sexual
> intercourse or not.
Does that mean a male person can only lose his virginity by having
genital intercourse with a person of the opposite sex? I am skeptical iabout
such a clinical definition written in medieval text, but surely that is what we
mean by the term, "losing one's virginity" nowadays. Has anyone come
across medieval definition (or sometihng that comes close to a
definition) which would settle the question, what makes one a virgin?
David Liu
Centre for Medieval Studies, Toronto.
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