I am doing this for the first time, so apologies if I haven't done this right!
I would be grateful for your advice on the following paper: https://www.thelancet.com/journals/laneur/article/PIIS1474-4422(16)30294-0/fulltext
I was keen to know that if I chose to change practice based on this paper, how many children would I treat with both steroids and vigabatrin, who would have got better with just steroids.
I did NNT calculation on the internet which said 6.7 patients would have to receive both treatments (instead of just steroid treatment) for one additional patient to remain spasm free between 14 and 42 days. Which would imply to me that I would be subjecting nearly 6 patients to side effects of vigabatrin when they did not need it.
Does that sound correct?
Thanks for your help.
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