Dear all
I'll thank the Rev. Stolz for pointing out it was Lateran 4 that 'fixed' the
sacraments at 7 and said just which were in and which were out. After his
informative point (I wish I could call it a 'reminder'!), I'll refine my query
to this:
At what point did the number and definition of sacraments become 'canonical'?
Bono Giamboni, the chap in question, switches from a non-canonical 'incarnation'
to a canonical 'ordination' within a few years in 1260+. How might we explain
this?
Since we should expect Lateran 4 to shove these into a canon, then how long
before this 'bit' -- in the sense of being generally known and accepted? As
said, within the writing career of one man we shift from non-'canonical' to
'canonical'.
As I've said, Gregory IX (thinks: wasn't he Innocent III's, um, nephew???
unthinks) sticks all of them into his Decretals and doesn't seem to have a
problem with it in 1230+. I.e. what we now have as the canonical 7 are what
Gregory has and what uncle Innocent III said was so.
Why did the Council of Florence reiterate them? Was this a response to Hus? Or
had there been dispute or even confusion between 1230 and 1438 -- after all, we
have Bono Giamboni who changed track from one work to the next within a small
number of years. I can understand the Council of Trent needing to reaffirm just
about everything (loin-girding), though this is outside my period.
I'd appreciate the insight of this list, and I'll apologise in advance for any
naivety or ignorance. Thanks again to Rev. Stolz for setting parameters.
In ignorance
Angus Graham, waiting for the rain in Oman
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