James A. Brundage <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
>The one mass a day rule became the standard in Western canon law at
least from the time of the second recension of Gratian's Decretum, i.e., by
around 1150 ff. ...It had appeared earlier in Ivo of Chartres'
Decretum 2.81 (PL 161:179). The rule was reiterated in a letter of Innocent
III to the bp. of Worcester...
>OK?
It's certainly o.k. by me, JAB, and many thanks for the typically erudite
response.
There are, i *think* two seperate but probably related questions about this
mass business, however:
1) the question of whether a priest is limited to a single mass a day, which
you, Josef and Tom have definitively answered to even my tediously
knitpickety satisfaction; and
b) the question of whether any given altar/table may be used for this purpose
more than once a day.
[in the *West*, preferably *before 1200*, i would add, from my own point of
interest. Josef's remarks, if i understood them correctly, referred
only to the East and, perhaps, to the modern East at that(?)]
this latter question (b) would have had --apparently-- *very* significant
implications for High Romanesque (at least) architecture, which Jim Bugslag
and i, perversely, find more interesting than any of the theological --or even
liturgical-- questions which the more normal people on this list might be
obsessed with.
(well, i suppose i shouldn't speak for Jim's, only for my own,
perversiveness.)
the theological argument against multiple daily massings by a single priest
are quite interesting; and, *if* indeed there was a similar prohibition re
individual altars, i assume that it had a congruent and equally imaginative
justification (?).
best to all from here,
christopher
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