In a message dated 9-28-1999 6:29:31 PM Eastern Daylight Time,
[log in to unmask] writes:
> Early Latin apologetics, e.g. Tertullian, use "adversus gentes" in their
> titles. Might the use of "gentile" in an English reflect a Latin usage
> shared by Jews & Christians, not just a Jewish usage?
>
> Tom Izbicki
In the King James Bible, Gentiles is used quite often in both testaments, and
to translate a rather wide range of Hebrew and Greek words. Everything from
foreigner to Hellene. I don't recall it's occurring that often in
Shakespeare, so not sure why it's so frequent in the KJV. I think, Tom,
you're probably right. Also, for anyone who doesn't want anything in
Christianity that's been defined by Judaism, it's going to be hard to decide
what to do with God, or with the Old Testament.
Seriously, I'm not enthusiastic about putting hexes on words, or issuing
arbitrary and unilateral dicta about which words are to be considered taboo
or "offensive." It's only a call for euphemism, which has been tried and
never works. More often than not it perpetuates or worsens the very problem
it was meant to ameliorate. A more constructive approach is to develop some
new words, and if they're indeed better than the old words, then they'll
catch on and be used. Happens all the time, and this is the natural way for
language to develop.
Tom, it was James Joyce, in Ulysses, who gave Augustine's title as *Summa
contra Gentiles.* Is this not the preferred form?
pat sloane
%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%
|