We recently encountered a case where a lady admitted for sterilisation had a negative urine pregnancy test and underwent sterilisation. She was subsequently shown to be pregnant with dates consistent with conception occurring prior to the procedure.
Should a sensitive serum test have been used rather than a urine test? Does anyone know of cases where laboratories/hospitals have been criticised for using urine test rather than serum in such circumstances?
Steve Davis
Principal Biochemist
Department of Clinical Biochemistry
East Glamorgan General Hospital
Church Village
PONTYPRIDD
Mid Glamorgan
CF38 1AB
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