I have come across a fleeting reference to the fact that Jerome's
translation of the Bible received the title of 'Vulgate' only in the
sixteenth century.
Can anyone in here cast any light on the processes by which the title
"Vulgate" came to be ascribed to Jerome's translation?
Thanks in advance
John Kinder
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Dr John J Kinder
Department of Italian
University of Western Australia
PERTH WA 6907
AUSTRALIA
Tel: (08) 9380-2192 Fax: 1182
http://www.arts.uwa.edu.au/EuropeanWWW/ItalianHome.html
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