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I have come across a fleeting reference to the fact that Jerome's translation of the Bible received the title of 'Vulgate' only in the sixteenth century. Can anyone in here cast any light on the processes by which the title "Vulgate" came to be ascribed to Jerome's translation? Thanks in advance John Kinder **************************************************** Dr John J Kinder Department of Italian University of Western Australia PERTH WA 6907 AUSTRALIA Tel: (08) 9380-2192 Fax: 1182 http://www.arts.uwa.edu.au/EuropeanWWW/ItalianHome.html %%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%