At 22:44 11/04/2011 +0100, King T. wrote:
>I'm a firm believer that if a statistic is being used in the public domain
>then it should be aligned with the public interpretation of it. The share
>of the vote currently does not indicate essential parliamentary strength
>although it is reported as such. Share of first preference could be used
>in this way with more legitimacy.
I'm not sure I understand that. With our current FPTP system, the one vote
cast surely has to be assumed to be the 'first (and only) preference' - so
what is the distinction you're making?
Kind Regards,
John
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