medieval-religion: Scholarly discussions of medieval religion and culture
Dear Jeffrey,
I know little of the actual use of the arguments in the debates, but as to supersession, that is the New Israel replacing Old Israel had been stock argument, and the obvious symbol for the "cessatio legalium" was the destruction of the Temple. The Temple, however was understood to live on in a spiritual sense, since the Holy of Holies was interpreted since early Christology as the body of Christ (see eg. Congar, Y., The mystery of the Temple (Le mystere du Temple), tr. R.F.Trevett), transforming the OT Temple into a spiritual Temple, which was again understood as the Church. For later stock Latin arguments for the allegorical interpretations (in addition to those mentioned by Frans) see Bede, De tabernaculo et vasis eius, De templo Salamonis (both in PL 91, and I think there is now an English translation of these works, too). In the 12th c. one would wish to look at the Victorines, like Richard of SV, Allegoriae Tabernaculi Foederis, PL 196. These allegories were understood as the 'real' or 'prophetic' meaning of the OT descriptions.
One little point : isn't supersession the right term, not supercessio (supersedere > sessio, replace, not cessio - expiry (cessio diei), or supercedere, cross, exceed ) ?
Best,
George
Gyorgy Gereby
associate professor
Mediaeval Studies Department
Central European University
Budapest V.
Nador u. 9.
H-1051 Hungary
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>>> "George R. Hoelzeman" <[log in to unmask]> 10/27/08 2:49 AM >>>
medieval-religion: Scholarly discussions of medieval religion and culture
On Sun, 26 Oct 2008 13:54:33 -0400, Frans van Liere wrote:
>The argument there is clearly that it was seen as God's punishment for the Jews' crucifixion of Jesus. Jennifer Harris, of Toronto, who is preparing a book on
the Temple, might have more on this.
I seem to recall reading somewhere an arguement that the destruction of the Temple was an act of Divine supercession more than punishment, but don't
remember where I came across that arguement. Equally, I detect some recollection of someone arguing that the supercession arguement is already present (in
nascient form) in some of the late NT writings.
Equally, equally, I don't remember where I came across any of this and could likely be wildly in error.
George the Less
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