It is easy to agree with Alan Zaslavsky that the use the phrase "of good
breeding" signalled social status. But the interpretation of the phrase
'of good breeding' he gives is a verdict from a different age. Is he
suggesting that those who used the phrase in the 19th century did not really
believe it?
It would be getting into very tricky areas to try and discuss the sincerity
and understanding of those who used the phrase 'of good breeding' in the
19th century. We can be reasonably confident that they usually acted in
their choice of marital partner in ways which maintained their social
status and we might be justified in giving emphasis to that aspect of their
choice. But at the time people made their choicess in terms that betray
belief in eugenics.
Even if their understanding was limited and even if their choices were not
always 'healthy' it is reasonable to describe them as eugenicists because
of their beliefs.
Ray Thomas
-----Original Message-----
From: email list for Radical Statistics [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On
Behalf Of Alan Zaslavsky
Sent: Sunday, June 10, 2007 6:04 PM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: Do we have a shared understanding of what 'eugenics' means?
> Use of the phrase 'of good breeding' indicates recognition of the
> practice of eugenics among members of the aristocracy and upper middle
> classes in the 19th century. In the 20th century it became difficult
> to to draw a clear
To this incredulous observer it appears more likely to reflect a claim of
natural superiority based on superior social status and learned manners that
signaled this status. The prevalenc of congenital hemophilia among the
European royal families is a notorious example of the lack of genetic basis
for this claim.
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