medieval-religion: Scholarly discussions of medieval religion and culture

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Good day, eh?

John, thanks for your help with the citation.
I gather we are refering to the paragraph
that concludes:
Therefore, although I value this book, it is
an epistle that need not be counted among
the chief books which are supposed to lay
the foundations of falth. (AE 35:397f)

[AE = Luther's Works, American Edition]

First, a caveat.  I think I should point out one
needs be very careful when quoting Luther if only
because he wrote in a time far different from
ours and because he wrote and was transcribed
so voluminously.

Thus, in the summer or fall of 1532, Luther
is quoted as saying at the supper table,
"St. Augustine was a pious sinner, for he
had but one mistress. . . ." ( see AE 54:49).
Before we all conclude that Luther endorsed
extra-marital sexual relations, it would be
well to read what he had to say on this subject
in his remarks on the sixth commandment in
his Small and Large Catechisms.

The AE contains slightly over half of the known
works of Luther.  The index to the AE cites
a total of twenty references to the book of
Jude in the entire Edition.  When one remembers
that Jude has a total of twenty-five verses,
this is significant.

How does Luther use references to Jude in
his writings?  An example occurs in "Against
the Roman Papacy an Institution of the Devil"
published in 1545 [AE 41:257-376].  Luther
writes:
       And if the pope had done nothing but set
  himself above all the churches and bishops to
  be judge of all and let himself be judged or
  punished by no one -- and thus give and allow
  the devil and flesh free rein to practice all their
  mischief, as we see and as Jude says in his
  epistle, "They are ungodly persons who pervert
  the grace of our God into licentiousness and deny
  our only Master and Lord Jesus Christ"  [Jude 4] --
  this one thing alone would be sufficient token
  by which one could recognize the pope, that
  he certainly must be the true, final, horror,
  the Antichrist.  [AE 41:363f]

Here we see Luther using a verse from Jude to
establish one of his central -- if most objectionable
-- teachings: the papacy is the Antichrist.

He also used Jude 6 as Biblical proof in a statement
in his "Disputation Concerning Justification" in 1536
[AE 34:171].

How are we to account for Luther's use of a book
he "rejected" as being authoritative for dogma?

Look again at the passage cited to "prove" Luther's
rejection of Jude.  I find nowhere where he says
that he "rejects" it.  To the contrary, he says that
he "values" it.  He does, however, state that it is
not necessary for the Christian to read it.

Like myself and every Christian I've ever met,
Luther liked some books of the Bible better than
others.  Too, like most exegetes since the fourth
century, Luther observed the distinction between
the homologoumena and the antilogoumena.
However, as a careful reading of his writings
will show, Luther did not reject any of the canonical
books of the Bible.  Using the index to the AE,
you will find that he cites them all as authoritative.

Thank you for citing a passage from Luther's writings
that is to be found in the AE.  There are about two
dozen or so that are used to "prove" that Luther
"rejected" this or that book of the Bible, and not
all have been translated into English.

More explicit information on this subject is to be
found in Reu, M.  *Luther and the Scriptures*.

I'd like to suggest that Luther, at least after he
drove the fourth nail into the 95 Theses on the
door of the Castle Church, Wittenberg, falls after
the period usually discussed by this list.  A more
suitable forum may be the Ficino list, run by
the diligent scholars at the University of Toronto.


Regards to all on this, the eve of the 488th
anniversary of the posting of the 95 Theses.

Frank

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