medieval-religion: Scholarly discussions of medieval religion and culture
I'm sorry, but I do not follow your reasoning. The passage itself does not conclusively support but neither does it conclusively reject perpetual virginity. However, Jerome and others who argue for (support) perpetual virginity do so by employing other scriptural evidence. When you therefore say, with emphasis, absolutely, that the NT does not support the pepertual virginity of Mary, you seem to assume that the interpretation of the NT is a clearcut, obvious matter. But if anything is clear would it not be the fact that interpretation of the NT is not clearcut? If it were, why in the world would Christians disagree about things like the perpetual virginity of Mary?
Perhaps when you used the word "support" you meant something much, much stronger: "proves" or "demonstrates" or "convincingly supports" or "persuasively supports"?
I did err, however, in failing to include Tony Corbett when I mentioned names of those who self-confidently interpretated the specific text in an anit-perpetual-virginity manner. You actually made a broader claim, about the NT as a whole, so, for the sake of illustrating the point I was making, I should have mentioned Tony Corbett's response rather than yours.
Finally, I do not know what you mean by "inclusive." It does not seem to be a helpful term here.
Dennis Martin
>>> [log in to unmask] 07/06/05 10:56 AM >>>
medieval-religion: Scholarly discussions of medieval religion and culture
Quoting Dennis Martin <[log in to unmask]>:
K. V. Inman's quick asumption that it "actually says" that she
> was not [a perpetual virgin]
No, I did not assume this, I merely said that the N.T. does not support the view
of perpetual virginity. To which many people replied that it does, because the
passage is inclusive. Inclusive evidence is not support!!!
V. K. Inman
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