Hi!
Has anyone got an example of when a systematic review has given a poorer ‘answer’ than a single RCT?
I’m thinking of, say, a systematic review, which has ‘homogenised’ a set of RCTs therefore making it less applicable to a local situation for any reason (e.g. ethnicity) compared with a single RCT that was more ‘sympathetic’ to the local setting.
Cheers
jon
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