medieval-religion: Scholarly discussions of medieval religion and culture
> I just got out of bed and am muddled at the moment, so forgive my
> perplexity. But I must ask: why would it not be possible for someone
> to convert after her son's (or anyone else's) death?
> MG
Be patient, and I will explain all.
Although Constantine favoured Christianity from the incident of the
Milvian Bridge onwards, he did not actually become a Christian until he
was dying. I quote the Oxford Dictionary of the Christian Church, which
does in fact have something to say on the subject:
"... throughout his reign his commitment to Christianity is clear, even
though he was not baptized until just before his death (deferment of
baptism was common in those days)."
His baptism is described by Eusebius. He had intended it to be in
Jerusalem, but that was not possible in the event.
Now Constantine died in 337, which I take it dates his baptism.
Helena, on the other hand, had died in 330. Unless she was dug up and
baptised posthumously, I do not see how her conversion could possibly
have taken place after Constantine's.
I am of course identifying conversion with baptism. I realise that many
protestants would not make such an identification, and I have no wish
to upset them; but neither Constantine nor Helena was a protestant.
Bill.
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