Am I under the wrong impression here ...?
I thought that if caller A dials a GP number and it is not answered because no one is there to answer it but caller A leaves the phone ringing assuming that it will be answered - then caller B's attempts to dial the same GP number will get the engaged tone.
That means that just because a line to a GP is engaged then you can't assume it is because there is someone at the GP end of the line talkiing on the line.
right or wrong?
Lynn Turnbull
Lynn Turnbull
Quality Co-ordinator
Clinical Biochemistry and Immunology
Old Medical School
Leeds General Infirmary
Leeds
LS1 3EX
Phone : 0113 392 3947
Fax : 0113 343 5672
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