medieval-religion: Scholarly discussions of medieval religion and culture
How early, I wonder, is the equation of the Greek pantheon with demons?
I am working on Martin of Braga, who in the latter half of the sixth
century names individual Greek gods and equates them with demons/[wo]men
of evil repute. Why did he not use the Roman pantheon? Was this
propaganda? If so, on whose behalf? I am woefully ignorant on this
period and find myself baffled. Was this 'simply' the rhetoric of the
times? Is there a sub-text that I, in ignorance, am missing? Who else
was doing this? Is there a book or so I can read?
I have no problem displaying my warts, and so I refer the reader to my
own translation of Martin's _De Correctione Rusticorum_ at:
<http://freespace.virgin.net/angus.graham/Braga.htm>
My main question is why GREEK and not Roman? Yes, I am unashamedly
fishing. I will also give thanks for anything I may use.
Angus Graham, Oman
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