the use of the female voice as a "cross dressed" expression of male homosocial and/or homoerotic bonds is almost a convention in renaissance poetry. see elizabeth harvey's *ventriloquized voices.* certainly shakespeare is doing something of the sort in that wonderfully titillating epilogue to *as you like it.* it is ultimately irrelevant whether the textual addressee of marlowe's poem is male or female----what *is* relevant is that the poem initiates an exchange of erotic poetry among men. i fail to see much "mystery" here.
stephen whitworth
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