>
> Well I certainly agree that Doc Bob explained the differences but I
> am still
> puzzled as to why Jerome translated the way he did. Did he use Greek
> terms
> because they were common lingo? technical terms with no Latin
> equivalent?
> just lazy or in a hurry with the Septuagint by his side for cribbing?
> trying
> to comment without adding commentary? explanations without
> explanatory notes?
No on all counts. He translated from the Hebrew, not from the
Septuagint. He was the first Christian translator do so. He did not
use Greek terms; in fact, he has been criticised for not giving enough
weight to the Septuagint, preferring always the 'Hebraica veritas'. In
Genesis, as throughout the Hebrew Scriptures, it was his usual custom
to translate Hebrew names. This is far from lazy; it would have been
easier to have left them untranslated. He wrote many exegetical works
which provided commentaries and explanatory notes.
Doc Bill.
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