Dear all,
I was just wondering whether it is possible to have a situation where
one finds no consistent activations in any given cortical region
reflecting the activity for a given contrast it the subject level
analysis, and yet to have a robust , significant activity when an RFX
analysis is performed on the same set of subjects for that same
contrast?
If this is possible, what will the interpretation be?
Thanks,
Priyantha Herath
|