Dear All,
I'd like to ask the following simple question. I have a continuous dependent
variable which is highly right-skewed. I attempted to model this using a GLM
with a Gamma distribution and log-link function. Alternatively, I can apply
a variance-stabilizing transform (such as the log) to the dependent variable
and model this using a Normal ~ instead of a Gamma. I'd like to ask, what is
the main difference between the two approaches mentioned above? I mean,
which one is "more appropriate" to use in which situation.
Many thanks in advance for you help!
Regards,
Lards.
|