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Subject:
95% confidence
From:
"Finney, Simon" <[log in to unmask]>
Reply-To:
Finney, Simon
Date:
Thu, 2 Jan 2003 20:45:38 -0000
Content-Type:
text/plain
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text/plain (10 lines)
Dear All, I have been trying to find the origins of why we consider (quite often) that an acceptable probability for a type I error is 0.05 and for a type II error 0.20. Where do the figures come from ? Thanks Simon
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