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What could be of interest to your topic would be to also look at
contemporary exegesis on Luke 24, where Christ and the two disciples are, in
the Latin, fabling and sermoning, 'dum fabularentur . . . hi sermones', on
the road to Emmaus. 'Sermons' there simply mean 'conversations', but I argue
in my dissertation the conjunction of the two words allow Dante, Langland
and Chaucer to combine fables and theology in their poetry. And likewise
John Mirk for St James' Day to create a sermon filled with Compostela
pilgrims' tales. Lollards were against the telling of tales and against
pilgrimage. Not so non-Lollard sermons. There is an especially fine Wyclif
sermon on the Good Samaritan - which sort of does both!


 At 13.41 16/10/97 +1200, you wrote:
>	Many thanks to those of you who responded to my query. If I am
>correct, the gist of your answers was that during the fourteenth and
>fifteenth centuries the sermon and the homily were considered as one and
>the same and in is only modern interpretations that have seen the two as
>performing a different liturgical function.
>	This, however, leads me to ask a follow on question. I am a thesis
>student writting a comparison of Lollard and Orthodox middle English
>sermons but have handicapped by a lack of available Orthodox sources.
>However, ample homilies exist, particularly in the E.E.T.S. series and it
>has been suggested that I supplement my Orthodox sermons with homilies.
>What do others think? is this acceptable or would I be pushing my luck too
>far?
>		Cheers,
>		Marcus.
>
>
>
>
____
Julia Bolton Holloway
via del Partigiano 16, Montebeni, 50014 FIESOLE, ITALY
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http://members.aol.com/juliansite/Juliansite.htm

Wherefore it behovyth nedys to be that alle hevyn alle erth shalle tremylle
and quake whan the pillers shall tremylle and quake.
Julian of Norwich, Paris Manuscript, fol. 158v.




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