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Hi Julian,

Given this is an RCT, and given that you aren't interested in "average"
effects over the two timepoints, but rather the effect in the follow-up
after accounting for the baseline, the best is really simply enter baseline
as a nuisance (voxelwise) regressor, and run a two-sample t-test comparing
the groups (that is, having the baseline and possibly other nuisance, such
as age or sex).

There is no need for a repeated measures or mixed design.

All the best,

Anderson


On Tue, 18 Jun 2019 at 06:57, Julian Macoveanu <[log in to unmask]>
wrote:

> Hi Anderson,
>
> It is a randomised placebo controlled design. We have a group of patients
> assigned to either active treatment or placebo. We want to asses the effect
> of treatment vs. placebo. One can say it is from baseline to follow up
> while controlling for the placebo effect. By the book, this would just be
> the interaction effect baseline and follow-up vs placebo and active.
> However, since we know this is not a sensitive design for fMRI data due to
> high within subject variability, the idea is that we assume no difference
> between subjects at baseline and then just compare the active and placebo
> groups at follow-up. But it would be nicer to be able to add the baseline
> data as covariates since the assumption that they are the same at baseline
> is not waterproof. The latter approach would be justified if we are able to
> see that baseline and follow-up scans are indeed correlated.
>
> Best,
> Julian
>
> On Sun, Jun 16, 2019 at 12:43 AM Anderson M. Winkler <
> [log in to unmask]> wrote:
>
>> Hi Julian,
>>
>> I'm sorry for the late reply. Was attending conferences. Now I realise
>> there is at least one more piece of information missing. What are the
>> hypotheses for your two studies? Are you interested in differences between
>> baseline and follow-up, or are these two scans intended to improve ability
>> to detect effects that would persist across both timepoints?
>>
>> All the best,
>>
>> Anderson
>>
>>
>> On Wed, 12 Jun 2019 at 08:52, Julian Macoveanu <
>> [log in to unmask]> wrote:
>>
>>> Hi guys,
>>>
>>> I would still need some input on the issue below.
>>>
>>> All the best,
>>> Julian
>>>
>>> On Mon, May 27, 2019 at 10:08 AM Julian Macoveanu <
>>> [log in to unmask]> wrote:
>>>
>>>> Hi Anderson,
>>>>
>>>> I have not done the correlation yet, how to do it was actually my first
>>>> question. The only way I see it, but please correct me if I am wrong, is to
>>>> look at one contrast at a time, e.g. I enter the cope1 from one group as
>>>> input, and add an voxel-wise EV in the stats which is a 4D made from cope1s
>>>> of the respective group at follow-up (in matching order as the input). I
>>>> would then look at the contrast to check for any significant effects (+/-
>>>> 1).
>>>>
>>>> Regarding the study design, there are actually two studies we planned
>>>> to use this approach on:
>>>> - Randomised trial with patients assigned to either real treatment or
>>>> placebo
>>>> - Remitted patients that that had a secondary episode vs. remitted
>>>> patients that did not have a secondary episode after one year. So all
>>>> patients scanned at the first remission, and then again after one year.
>>>>
>>>> Best,
>>>> Julian
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> On Sat, May 25, 2019 at 11:34 PM Anderson M. Winkler <
>>>> [log in to unmask]> wrote:
>>>>
>>>>> Hi Julian,
>>>>>
>>>>> Could you tell the following:
>>>>>
>>>>> - How are the correlations between baseline and follow-up computed? Do
>>>>> you do some kind of spatial correlation between results, or do you check
>>>>> whether task-based BOLD-responses are correlated in both scans? Or
>>>>> something else?
>>>>> - How are the groups defined? Is this a randomized controlled trial or
>>>>> just an observational study of the kind patients vs. controls?
>>>>>
>>>>> All the best,
>>>>>
>>>>> Anderson
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> On Fri, 24 May 2019 at 12:50, Julian Macoveanu <
>>>>> [log in to unmask]> wrote:
>>>>>
>>>>>> Hi all,
>>>>>>
>>>>>> I have 2 groups scanned with fMRI twice. Due to the known high within
>>>>>> subject variability which approaches between-subject values, my group
>>>>>> decided to first perform a correlation test between baseline and follow-up
>>>>>> measurements. If there is a significant correlation between baseline &
>>>>>> follow-up then we would like to perform a 2-sample t-test using the
>>>>>> follow-up data while adjusting for baseline data. If the correlation test
>>>>>> is negative i.e. the baseline cannot predict the follow-up, then we would
>>>>>> just do the 2-sample follow-up t-test without baseline correction. Instead
>>>>>> we would simply check that whatever we find between groups at follow-up was
>>>>>> not present between groups at baseline.
>>>>>>
>>>>>> Now, the question is, do you think this is a sensible approach? Can
>>>>>> the correlation analysis be made in FEAT somehow using voxelwise
>>>>>> covariates? I guess if I find the answer to this question I can also move
>>>>>> on and similarly adjust the data by the baseline data as covariate.
>>>>>>
>>>>>> Julian
>>>>>>
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>>>>>
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