Would be ineterested in viewpoints re the following scenario:
 
I was asked a hypothetical situation about someone who wanted to take leave to account for absence following a routine op rather than take sickness absence. Doubtless fuelled by a robust management approach to absence at the mo, however the person concerned had a good absence hsitory so theoretically shouldnt have had concerns, works in a physically demanding role and anticipated that 2 weeks leave following an arthroscopy with possible further interevention while in the knee was ample time for recovery and a return to full duties. I replied by saying I didnt think it was a good idea from a clinical perspective, gave reasons why but that ultmately it was a management decision re whether to allow it. Please note that at this point it was no names, no pack drill, i was given a scenario to comment on.
 
Cue a rather stroppy email from the gent in question (who incidentally I have never met) copied into all and sundry. I again explained the reasons why I had offered the advice, and that it was on the request of his manager. Cue an even more stroppy email, with further copyings ins telling me (eg) that I needed to "sort myself out" and that the unions "would be on my back" if I continued giving "stupid" advice, that he would be "taking this further" and calling me a variety of insults. I responded tactfully - and further stated that if he required further OH input his manager might like to refer him elsewhere as i wouldnt be seeing him. As anticipated - the op didnt go as planned, he has now been off 6 weeks and this has prompted a referral to OH.
 
I am quite happy sticking to my guns and feel I am justified in not seeing him, I dont see why I should be expected to see someone who had been so rude and offensive - however, I have no policy/procedure to back up my decision. His managers are concerned about his case, and are insisting that he is seen. So far my answer is still "Not a chance"............comments?