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Looks like you did the group comparison correctly, one thing that I might
change is to have separate covariates for each group. Using a single
covariate across groups assumes that the relationship between the DV and
covariate is the same in both groups.
The result is not surprising. I'd change the T to the FDR level of the first
group -- this will give you a more direct comparison to the significance
(without corrections). FDR is an iterative thresholding approach, so if the
most significant voxel doesn't pass, then no voxels will.

Furthermore, the absence of results in one group where results are present
in another group DOES NOT imply group differences. For example, say visual
cortex in group 1 has a T-value of 3.01 and group 2 has a T-value of 2.99.
These are clearly not different, but using a threshold of 3 will show the
result in one group, but not the other. Additionally, even if the
T-statistics were significantly different between the groups, the groups
could have the same mean value (T-stat difference is due to SD of the
group), which is what is being tested with a 2-sample t-test.

Hope this helps.

On Wed, Jul 8, 2009 at 10:43 AM, Harsha Halahalli <
[log in to unmask]> wrote:

> Dear SPMers,
> We have a query regrading group comparisons of PPIs.
> We have performed a PPI analysis in a fMRI dataset acquired while subjects
> were performing a cognitive paradigm which consisted of two tasks (say Task
> A and and a baseline Task B). There were two groups of subjects (say Group
> 1, n=23;  and Group 2, n=23). We have extracted VOI-timeseries from a
> chosen
> seed region for each of the subject's 1st level SPM, derived the regressors
> for the [Task A -Task B] contrast, set up the PPI GLM for individual
> subjects and obtained con images for
> positive and negative interactions. We then entered these 1st level con
> images from subjects of the two groups into two separate second level
> one-sample t-test models. This model included four confounding covariates.
> One of the groups showed extensive areas of significant negative
> interactions after FDR correction at p<0.05. The other group did not show
> any such regions of negative interaction. However, when we entered these
> same 1st level con images into a two-sample t-test model for a
> between-group
> comparison with the covariates of no-interest, we fail to see any
> significant differences in the areas of negative interaction (See attached
> file for images).
>
> Our quetions are:
>
> 1. Have we followed the correct steps for this between-group comparison of
> PPIs?
>
> 2. Why does the two-sample t-test comparison fail to show any significant
> group differences when the one-sample tests suggest such obvious
> differences
> in the pattern of negative interactions in the two groups?
>
> Any comments / suggestions would be greatly appreciated.
>
> Best Regards
> Harsha
>
> -------------------------------------------------------------
> Harsha Halahalli
> PhD Scholar
> MBIAL, Department of Psychiatry
> National Institute of Mental Health and Neurosciences (NIMHANS)
> Bangalore - 560029, INDIA
>



-- 
Best Regards, Donald McLaren
=====================
D.G. McLaren
University of Wisconsin - Madison
Neuroscience Training Program
Office: (608) 265-9672
Lab: (608) 256-1901 ext 12914
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