Does anyone know if this is actually true? As far as I can see the Spanish data protection law effectively just transposes the definitions from the Directive, and personal data is data relating to a living, identifiable individual.
I know that in some countries the cause of death is not given on a death certificate, but I think that's generally separate to data protection law.
Jon Baines,
Chair,
nadpo.co.uk
> On 10 Feb 2016, at 13:48, Simon Howarth <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
>
> This is probably simply a cultural thing allied to what Ciaran has said. Never under estimate simple culture and historical precedent. In some (may be all) Scandanavian countries there are few, if any, confidentiality restrictions relating to income tax and pay. You can simply ask your tax office what Joe Bloggson earns and you will be told. I think it's probably a similar thing in this instance, it's "just always been like that". Maybe?
>
> Simon Howarth.
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: This list is for those interested in Data Protection issues [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Ward, Ciaran
> Sent: 10 February 2016 10:13
> To: [log in to unmask]
> Subject: [SPAM] Re: [data-protection] Cause of death Spain
>
> Presumably it’s because of the perceived stigma surrounding certain causes of death in certain cultures - eg death by suicide or an STD, which if disclosed to the wider public could cause distress to the family or affect the posthumous reputation of the deceased.
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: This list is for those interested in Data Protection issues [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of John Rumbold
> Sent: 08 February 2016 15:16
> To: [log in to unmask]
> Subject: [data-protection] Cause of death Spain
>
> Apparently in Spain the cause of death is considered personal data and protected for 30 years after death. Does anyone know the reasons for this?
>
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