On Sun, Apr 07, 2013 at 01:22:31AM +0100, Mark wrote:
> If I found that functional connectivity (correlation of the time courses) between two brain regions (A and B) parallels a behaviour score, but there is no direct anatomical connection between A and B, does that makes sense?
Yes it does: correlation of the time course is not a partial measure: it
picks up common effects. For instance if I am dealing with a system with
3 nodes, A, B, and C, if A and B are connected and thus strongly
correlated, and B and C also, then I will observe a correlation between
the signals of A and C even though they are not directly connected.
In your case, I would thus suspect that there is a 3 region that is
mediating this interaction.
Gaël
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