The reason I asked the following question was because I was trying to
see how many people would fall for Schelling's old paradox. i.e. if you
ask:
If there were child exemptions in the tax code, such that a standard tax
exemption is allowed for each child, should the exemption be larger for
the rich than for the poor?
most people say no.
But if you ask:
Should the childless poor pay as large a surcharge as the childless
rich?
most people also say no.
The paradox is that you cannot logically reject both statements.
But no-one was interested, so it doesn't matter.
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