Hi folks,
I have been in communication with another statistician re. the definition of the 'null hypothesis' in a one sided test. They expressed a view which I'd never heard of before (and they were convinced they were right!)...I'd appreciate your thoughts.
Say we had 2 groups of people, z1 & z2. We want to test if z1 performs better than z2, then my fellow statistician said:
Ho: z1 is equal *or worse* than z2
H1: z1 is better than z2
To me, the null hypothesis above is incorrect...it should instead be:
Ho: z1 is equal to z2
H1: z1 is better than z2
Thank you, in advance, for your opinion.
Kind Regards,
Kim
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