medieval-religion: Scholarly discussions of medieval religion and culture
----- Original Message -----
From: "Tom Izbicki" <[log in to unmask]>
> One odditty, related
to the biblical texts. The fact that Gabriel referred to Mary as
"gratia plena" did not show up in the Immaculist arguments. I still
find that odd.<
The oddity is that 'gratia plena' (now such a major plank in Immaculist
argument) is another Vulgate mistranslation of the original Greek text of
the Gospel (Luke 1:28.) Is Jerome guilty again? The Greek has "You who
have been graced." The Greek does not say 'full,' and does not contain it
nor imply it. I am told that modern translations of the Bible, including
Roman ones, are now using the correct translation.
Fr Ambrose
-oOo-
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