Hi, SPMers:
I run the same F contrasts two times after 1st-level Bayesian analysis.
The computer did not ask me about the effective size threshold, but
automatically defined the effective size threshold as 0 and 1, respectively
(I see the result PPM^0 and PPM^1)
Two questions, 1) why the effective size threhold of PPM came out
differently for the same F contrasts because we don't have chance to type
in.
2) Can we change the effective size threshold of F contrast, like that of t
contrast?
Best,
TC
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