A ban on the use of Latin in English legal documents was first made during the English Commonwealth not the Reformation. This was repealed after the accession of Charles II and Latin continued in use until 1730 when statute 4 Geo. II. c. 26. came into force requiring legal proceedings (documents and hearings) to be undertaken in English. The statute would only appear to have applied to the generality of the proceedings and hence a large number of Latin phrases remaining in use i.e sub judice, habeas corpus etc etc.
Interestingly in the Church of England, whilst the use of English during the service became mandatory after the adoption of Cranmer's Book of Common Prayer in 1549, Latin was never totally proscribed.
'Though it be appointed, That all things shall be read and sung in the Church in the English Tongue, to the end that the Congregation may be thereby edified; yet it is not meant, but that when men say Morning and Evening Prayer privately, they may say the same in any language that they themselves do understand'.
Bea Hopkinson <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
Within my limited experience I do know that all documents at Droitwich
were previously written in Latin, were after 1536 written in English.
If this was
not widespread then it is possible it applied only to the Crown domain?
Did this not also affect church services previously given in Latin but
now mandated in English? Perhaps
someone who is more knowleageable on this subject can enlighten us?
>> Linguistics is not my field of study but I am wondering, if there are few
>> Latin loan words in English, if that is because English became mandatory
>> at the Reformation?
>This is a baffling question on any number of levels. English did not, of
>course, become mandatory at the Reformation (except, perhaps, in Ireland).
>But it is the number of Latin loan words in Old English that is the issue.
All New Yahoo! Mail – Tired of Vi@gr@! come-ons? Let our SpamGuard protect you.