On Jul 21 2006, Raimund Karl wrote:
> True. But that doesn't necessarily mean that every case of language
> adoption necessarily works the same way. There are several models that
> can explain why an incoming 'elite' either adopts a local language or why
> local communities adopt the language of an incoming 'elite'. That the
> Franks adopted Latin does not mean that the Anglosaxons had to do the
> same. It actually would be rather interesting to find out why the ones
> adopted Latin while the others didn't.
The idea of 5th-6th century Britain as a place where in some areas the
dominant language was actually in question between Latin and the native
Celtic language is an interesting one. Perhaps the lack of a clear winner
may have made both more vulnerable to replacement by the language of a
powerful new group?