medieval-religion: Scholarly discussions of medieval religion and culture
[log in to unmask] wrote:
As you know I am an Easterner and I have never ever understood the
peculiar
belief of the Church of Rome that God withholds the matrimonial grace
until
the moment when He observes some physical mingling of bride and groom
on the
sheets. What is the history of the development of this requirement of
physical consummation for RC marriage? Canon law?
Fr Ambrose
---
Respondeo: I am not a canon lawyer and know little of the development
of marriage law. However I refer you to Ladislas Orsy, SJ, "Marriage in
Canon Law" (Dublin 1988). Canon 1061 para. 1 says "A valid marriage
between baptized persons is called merely ratified, it it is not
consummated; ratified and consummated, if the spouses performed between
themselves and in a human manner the conjugal act that is apt in itself
for the generation of children; to this [act] marriage is ordered by
its nature, and through it the spouses become one flesh."
Orsy comments "We have here the definition of two terms used for
Christian marriage, 'ratum' and 'consummatum'. Their origins go back to
the Middle Ages when they were part of a triad: matrimonium initiatum
(betrothals), ratum (solemnized) and consummatum (the conjugal act has
taken place.) Each term signified a step in the slow process of
concluding a marriage, according to the traditions and customs of the
Germanic peoples of Europe."
Orsy further comments on "in a human manner": "the mere fact of
physical consummation is not enough to have the marriage consummated in
the canonical and theological sense; the act must be performed in a
human manner, that is, with that understanding and freedom which is
necessary for a morally responsible act . . . Nor can it take place
through force and fear." So the 'marital rape' of an unwilling bride
would not constitute consummation.
The Opus Dei commentary on Canon Law (Montreal 1993) comments "The
requirement that the marriage be consummated 'humano modo' is an
innovation. Previously, there had been discussion as to conjugal acts
committed with violence or in an irrational manner could be considered
the consummation of marriage. This doubt no longer exists."
As to "withholding the matrimonial grace": in the Catholic
understanding of marriage, the procreation of children is one of the
purposes for which marriage is ordained. This purpose predates the
elevation of marriage to the dignity of a sacrament; cf. Genesis 1:28,
'Be fruitful, multiply.' This understanding of the purposes of marriage
would hold good for many other denominations. I know for example that
the Anglican Book of Common Prayer says in the wedding service, "First,
it was ordained for the procreation of children ..."
You yourself know best what the Orthodox Church teaches; but I had the
opportunity of studying the Orthodox teaching when my sister-in-law
married in the Orthodox Church, and the priest helpfully circulated a
booklet explaining the Orthodox understanding of marriage. I do not
recall that it was significantly different from the Catholic
understanding in that respect.
We have, surely, to co-operate with grace. God does not deny his grace
to any who seek it (nor indeed, in many cases, to those who do not seek
it). But if a couple were to abstain from any attempt to procreate
children, this would appear to frustrate one of the basic purposes of
marriage (as the Church understands it). For them to accuse God of
denying them matrimonial grace would be as contrary as someone praying
to God for continued life, while refusing to eat any food.
I think that more-or-less exhausts my knowledge of the subject; if you
wish to know more, you must seek a wiser teacher.
Bill.
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