Why would consent be required given that the intention is for this to
be the declared formal policy of the authority? Everyone would know
where they stood from the outset, so no problem with fairness. You'd
have a Schedule 2, para 6 basis for processing.
And they're just talking about taping a meeting - not broadcasting it
on TV.
Moreover, why the consent of "both parties"? The employer may be a
party, but is a corporate body rather than a living individual with DP
rights. Even if some other individual's personal data is involved, its
not for the employer to give or withhold consent for that individual
under the DPA.
Finally, does this fall under the DPA (post Durant definition of
relevant filing system etc) at all?
Maurice Frankel
Campaign for Freedom of Information
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