yes indeed, Bill; that is exactly one of Lacan's major distinctions, and,
as Stephen pointed out in his most recent post, another point on which
Lacan and Shakespeare agree.
yours,
Shirley
>writes Shirley Sharon-Zisser .
>
>Okay, we translate early modern English "wanting" as "desiring and lacking"
>at the same time. But what if we translate as "feeling the need of"? "I
>want more uncles here to welcome me" (R3 3.3.6). If we translate "wanting"
>as "desiring," are we imposing a 20th century concept--our attitudes about
>desire--onto a 16th century word? What if we seek out alternative
>tranlations as well as other meanings available to early modern English
>speakers? A "want" can also be "an absence of what is needed." Aren't
>"need" and "desire" a bit different from each other?
>
>Yours, Bill Godshalkl
>
>
%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%
|