Yes this is meant to be an academic site...........so any answers yet?
>More thoughts from the ignorant.
>
>Clearly a patient who has had one half of their coagulation casacade stuffed
>by thrombolysis and the other half by warfarin is more likely to have a bleed
>than one who is not anti-coagulated...........but by how much?
>if the risk of major bleed on strep is 1% ish and tPA 2% ish what is it with
>warfarin?
>Just had a patient with warfarin on board who had myocardial ischaemia (not
>infarcting) and was provoked in to thinking (for a change)
>all replies will be gratefully accepted!
>Peter
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